There is something that's been bugging me guys quite a bit recently and I thought I would direct my questions to all of those educated linguistic experts and english fiends on this forum. And since it is the "english only "section I think I'm in the right place with my doubts.
While I perfectly understand ( at least I think I do) the usage of the invervions with negative adverbials as in "Not only is he as thick as two short planks squirt but he is also ...."( I hope the preposed doesn't apply to me, haha) I can't comprehend somehow the purpose of the inversion as in " Outside stood a little angel" where we violate by all means the famous canonical SVO word order.
Again, I realise of course that the purpose of the inversions in general is to put an additional emphasis and create dramatic effect in a sentence and yadda yadda yadda ...and that it is mainly used in books and literary works and drivel like.. but as in our " outside stood a liitle dwarf" or whatever the hell it stood there, I can't comprehend somehow what purpose it is served there by the preposing of typical adverbial with postposing and inversion of the subject.
When we invert it back we have our familiar SVO based 'A little dwarf stood outside" which said structure I'm more comfortable with personally.
So, following this "inversion" thread further forward in its abstruse convolution and violating our basic SVO order to a bit greater extent, may be it would be "politiacally correct"( in sense of grammar of course) to say - Stood a little angel outside " or " "A little otuside stood angel" or " Stood outside an angel little" ?? Because it just fits our rhyme ????
My point is basically this : Why the hell does what goes before go before ? and Why the heck does what comes after come after?
I was googling for some answers to this and the only point I found was like this :
"they"( who?? doyen grammarinas form Cambridge in the 15th century ???)
allowed speakers to avoid marked intonations without sacrificing intended emphasis". Again, I get the point that a non-canonical inverted sentence, so to speak, takes on a different intonation peak but I'm stll a bit vague about it as a whole!!!!!
So chums and gals , would someone be so kind and elucidate it to my limited brain in a bit more down-to-earth terms ? With some examples may be?? I'm sure some of you must've been confronted the stuff like this in your translations.
I mean whenever someone on this forum asks for help to correct his or her stupid
blunders you all eagerly rush into it, so please help me out too.